No.
As I understand it, if the alleles for eye color are normal, they'll be made up of either two regular (homozygous) genes (these are the 'same' gene) leading to the proteins for brown eye color. If the alleles are made up of one regular gene (dominate) and a mutated form (heterozygous) of the regular gene ( which is now recessive), eye color is still brown. But if the two regular genes at the alleles for eye color are both (homozygous) mutated (recessive), blue eye color results. This of course can be modulated by the proteins from other associated genes, leading to alternate modifications in color.
But blue eye color never dominates
See: How does your body know the difference between dominant and recessive genes?
http://science.howstuffworks.com/environ…
Best regards
As I understand it, if the alleles for eye color are normal, they'll be made up of either two regular (homozygous) genes (these are the 'same' gene) leading to the proteins for brown eye color. If the alleles are made up of one regular gene (dominate) and a mutated form (heterozygous) of the regular gene ( which is now recessive), eye color is still brown. But if the two regular genes at the alleles for eye color are both (homozygous) mutated (recessive), blue eye color results. This of course can be modulated by the proteins from other associated genes, leading to alternate modifications in color.
But blue eye color never dominates
See: How does your body know the difference between dominant and recessive genes?
http://science.howstuffworks.com/environ…
Best regards
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I don't think so.
According to the principles of Mendelian genetics, if an allele is recessive, it cannot be dominant over a dominant allele. Thus, it cannot be dominant over the allele for brown eyes, since the brown eye allele is actually dominant (and the allele for blue eyes is recessive). So, if even one of the brown eye alleles is present, then the person won't have blue eyes.
If the person has both recessive alleles for having blue eyes, then they'll have blue eyes. However, this wouldn't mean that the allele for blue eyes was dominant over the allele for brown eyes. It would simply mean that the recessive alleles were present rather than a/the dominant allele(s), which would cause the characteristics that come along with the recessive alleles to be expressed.
According to the principles of Mendelian genetics, if an allele is recessive, it cannot be dominant over a dominant allele. Thus, it cannot be dominant over the allele for brown eyes, since the brown eye allele is actually dominant (and the allele for blue eyes is recessive). So, if even one of the brown eye alleles is present, then the person won't have blue eyes.
If the person has both recessive alleles for having blue eyes, then they'll have blue eyes. However, this wouldn't mean that the allele for blue eyes was dominant over the allele for brown eyes. It would simply mean that the recessive alleles were present rather than a/the dominant allele(s), which would cause the characteristics that come along with the recessive alleles to be expressed.
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The short answer to this question is no.
The eye colour brown is always dominant over the colour blue, whereas the colour blue is dominant over green.
Let B=brown and b=blue
Couple 1
Bb x Bb (Both parents have brown eyes due to brown being dominant)
The chance that the offspring would have blue eyes is only 25%, but it is still possible
Couple 2
Bb x bb (One parent has brown eyes, the other has blue)
The chance of the offspr
The eye colour brown is always dominant over the colour blue, whereas the colour blue is dominant over green.
Let B=brown and b=blue
Couple 1
Bb x Bb (Both parents have brown eyes due to brown being dominant)
The chance that the offspring would have blue eyes is only 25%, but it is still possible
Couple 2
Bb x bb (One parent has brown eyes, the other has blue)
The chance of the offspr
1
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