I would think this is true, but I am not positive. Does anyone have a counter example showing i is false?
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of course it's true -- use the chain rule
d(f^2) = 2 f df
since f is differentiable, df exists.
f exists, and 2 is a scalar, so d(f^2) is differentiable.
d(f^2) = 2 f df
since f is differentiable, df exists.
f exists, and 2 is a scalar, so d(f^2) is differentiable.