Show that the volume of revolution of the area bounded by y=(1/x), where 1
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Volume of revolution is found easiest using the washer method here.
Volume = (pi) (integral of) y^2 dx, for x from 1 to infinity.
= (pi) (integral of) 1/x^2 dx
= (pi) [-1/x] from 1 to infinity
= pi
The surface area of revolution is found using:
surface area = (2pi) (integral of) y sqrt(1+dy/dx ^2) dx
But dy/dx = ln x, so sqrt(1 + (ln x)^2) is always equal or greater than 1.
The integrand, (1/x) sqrt (1 + (ln x)^2), is therefore always greater than 1/x
But we know that the integral of 1/x is ln x, which diverges when the upper limit is infinity.
It therefore follows that the integral (and therefore the surface area) is infinite.
Hope that helps.
Fibonacci
Volume = (pi) (integral of) y^2 dx, for x from 1 to infinity.
= (pi) (integral of) 1/x^2 dx
= (pi) [-1/x] from 1 to infinity
= pi
The surface area of revolution is found using:
surface area = (2pi) (integral of) y sqrt(1+dy/dx ^2) dx
But dy/dx = ln x, so sqrt(1 + (ln x)^2) is always equal or greater than 1.
The integrand, (1/x) sqrt (1 + (ln x)^2), is therefore always greater than 1/x
But we know that the integral of 1/x is ln x, which diverges when the upper limit is infinity.
It therefore follows that the integral (and therefore the surface area) is infinite.
Hope that helps.
Fibonacci
1
keywords: revolution,surface,Volume,and,of,Volume of revolution and surface of revolution