Prove: If f is one-to-one and f(X) is a subset of f(Y), then X is a subset of Y.
Anything helps :) Thank you!
Anything helps :) Thank you!
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f : A → B
X, Y ⊆ A
f is 1-1 and f(X) ⊆ f(Y)
Prove X ⊆ Y
Let x ∈ X. Let b = f(x). Then b ∈ f(X). Since f(X) ⊆ f(Y), then
b ∈ f(Y). So b = f(y) for some y ∈ Y. Since f is one-to-one
and f(x) = b = f(y), then x = y. So x ∈ Y. Hence if x ∈ X,
then x ∈ Y. This means that X ⊆ Y.
X, Y ⊆ A
f is 1-1 and f(X) ⊆ f(Y)
Prove X ⊆ Y
Let x ∈ X. Let b = f(x). Then b ∈ f(X). Since f(X) ⊆ f(Y), then
b ∈ f(Y). So b = f(y) for some y ∈ Y. Since f is one-to-one
and f(x) = b = f(y), then x = y. So x ∈ Y. Hence if x ∈ X,
then x ∈ Y. This means that X ⊆ Y.