Needing help proving this. Can't seem to get it right :\ Any help will be much appreciated.
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This took me a while, but that was because I think you meant (tan+cot)/csc^2.
Dividing by csc^2 is the same as multiplying by sin^2 so you have sin^2(tan+cot)=tan
tan = sin/cos and cot = cos/sin
Make the partial fraction a single fraction: (sin^2 + cos^2)/(sincos)
The top simplifies to 1 and the bottom can cancel with one of the sines in sin^2
That leaves you with sin/cos=tan
Dividing by csc^2 is the same as multiplying by sin^2 so you have sin^2(tan+cot)=tan
tan = sin/cos and cot = cos/sin
Make the partial fraction a single fraction: (sin^2 + cos^2)/(sincos)
The top simplifies to 1 and the bottom can cancel with one of the sines in sin^2
That leaves you with sin/cos=tan