If sequence {a_n} is bounded, then {a_n} converges?
Is the statement true or false? please explain why if true or give counter example is false.
Is the statement true or false? please explain why if true or give counter example is false.
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False; consider the sequence {(-1)^n} = {-1, 1, -1, 1, ...}, which is bounded but divergent.
I hope this helps!
I hope this helps!
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It's not true. Take sin(n). Then the sequence is bounded by -1 below and 1 above, but it never converges to an actual value.
However, if you add a condition of monotonicity, then it is true.
However, if you add a condition of monotonicity, then it is true.