No. The inverse of a matrix A is as follows:
A^(-1) = (1/det(A))Adjoint(A)
The adjoint of A is as follows:
Adjoint(A) = transpose(Cofmat(A))
So the adjoint matrix is part of the inverse. They are not the same.
A^(-1) = (1/det(A))Adjoint(A)
The adjoint of A is as follows:
Adjoint(A) = transpose(Cofmat(A))
So the adjoint matrix is part of the inverse. They are not the same.