Why is the derivative of the inverse sin(x) equal to 1/sqrt(1-x^2)
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Why is the derivative of the inverse sin(x) equal to 1/sqrt(1-x^2)

[From: ] [author: ] [Date: 11-10-13] [Hit: ]
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let's say y=inv sin(x)
when we implicitly differentiate both sides we can come to the conclusion that dy/dx=1/cos(y)
so why is the "formal" derivative of the inverse sine equal to 1/sqrt(1-x^2) ?
how is cos(y) related to sqrt(1-x^2) ?
It's just one of the things that bothers me in my learning of calculus. My teachers and professors just told me to memorize it.

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http://www.themathpage.com/acalc/inverse…
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