Interesting math question- doesn't make sense

So I've wondered for a while about this. If someone has 0 amount of something and someone else has 10 of that amount how many times more does he have than him? It obviously isn't 10 because the person would have to be one. And in general it wouldn't work because 0x?=0. So what's the answer?

He has infinitely more.

To understand this look at the following.

if I have one and you have 10 you have
10/1 = 10x more.

If I have one tenth and you have 10 you have
10/(1/10) = 100x more

f I have one hundredth and you have 10 you have
10/(1/100) = 1000x more

It keeps getting greater as I have less.

He doesn't have any times more of that item than the guy with nothing of it.

And that other person doesn't understand the question. You are asking, for example, if person A has no candy bars and person B has 10 candy bars, then how many times more candy bars does person B have than person B. The answer is that it isn't applicable. He has 10 more than the other person, but he doesn't have any times more than the other person.

0 times more.

If I have ten apples and someone else has none, then I have ten more apples than him, not ten times.
You can't have ten times the amount of zero. That doesn't make any sense.

It cannot be determined .... that is, x/0 is indeterminate.

both have 0 because 10 x 0=0

the question is a trick, it asks "how many times more does he 'HAVE' than him". But the guy with 0 has none.