I'm trying to better understand sexlinked genetics, b/c right now I'm lost. I do understand regular genetics for this biology class.
Here's my first problem:
Two normal visioned parents produce a colorblind son. What are the genotypes of the parents? What are the chances of their next child being a colorblind daughter?
I know that men have an X&Y chromosome and women have 2 X's. Please walk me through how to solve this. I do know how to operate the punnet square. I just have a hard time getting there.
Here's my first problem:
Two normal visioned parents produce a colorblind son. What are the genotypes of the parents? What are the chances of their next child being a colorblind daughter?
I know that men have an X&Y chromosome and women have 2 X's. Please walk me through how to solve this. I do know how to operate the punnet square. I just have a hard time getting there.
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I'm assuming that you understand the Mendelian laws of inheritance.
Colour blindless is a recessive disorder. For simplicities sake, we'll refer to this defective gene as X1 in this explanation. Usually, when we're dealing with sex linked traits, we don't consider the Y chromosome to also possess the gene in question. This is because the Y and X chromosomes are not homologous; the X chomosome contains FAR MORE genes than the Y chromosome.
From your question we can assume that the two parents are XY and X1 X. Remember, the male must always have one Y chromosome, and since he has normal vision, his one X chromosome must have the normal colour vision gene. As the mother has normal vision, she must possess only one X1 allele (this is to be passed on). Therefore, we can conclude that sons of the parents must receive one Y chromosome from the father, and have a 50% change of receive a defective X1 allele. X1Y= a male with colourblindness. The chances of females getting colourblindness, however, is 0. This is because the father must pass on a normal X chromosome, erasing all chances of a female with colourblindness.
Colour blindless is a recessive disorder. For simplicities sake, we'll refer to this defective gene as X1 in this explanation. Usually, when we're dealing with sex linked traits, we don't consider the Y chromosome to also possess the gene in question. This is because the Y and X chromosomes are not homologous; the X chomosome contains FAR MORE genes than the Y chromosome.
From your question we can assume that the two parents are XY and X1 X. Remember, the male must always have one Y chromosome, and since he has normal vision, his one X chromosome must have the normal colour vision gene. As the mother has normal vision, she must possess only one X1 allele (this is to be passed on). Therefore, we can conclude that sons of the parents must receive one Y chromosome from the father, and have a 50% change of receive a defective X1 allele. X1Y= a male with colourblindness. The chances of females getting colourblindness, however, is 0. This is because the father must pass on a normal X chromosome, erasing all chances of a female with colourblindness.
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Let C = normal and c = colorblind. The son must be cY; he got the c allele from the mother, and the Y allele from is father. His mother, because she has normal vision, must have the genotype Cc. The father has the genotype CY because he has normal vision.
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