log(x) = ln(x) / ln(10) ... or ... ln(x) = log(x) / log(e)
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If you are asking whether those two functions are equivalent, then no, they are not. If you are asking if there exists an x satisfying the equation, then yes, there are many.
x = π/4 + kπ, for any integer k
Follow-up:
I corrected a mistake in the above solution, but it also occurs to me that you may simply be trying to interpret an expression that you read somewhere. The function ln(x) is the natural logarithm, base e. The function log(x) usually represents the base 10 logarithm, but many publications use it as an equivalent expression for the natural logarithm. You will have to check your resource to see which convention it is using.
x = π/4 + kπ, for any integer k
Follow-up:
I corrected a mistake in the above solution, but it also occurs to me that you may simply be trying to interpret an expression that you read somewhere. The function ln(x) is the natural logarithm, base e. The function log(x) usually represents the base 10 logarithm, but many publications use it as an equivalent expression for the natural logarithm. You will have to check your resource to see which convention it is using.
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No. LN is actually log base e. When you write log standing alone,, it's understood to be a base 10 log.