If yes, please give the proof.
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let x^(log a base x) = y
taking log base x on both sides we have,
(log a base x) * (log x base x) = log y base x
but log x base x = 1 for x not equal to 1
thus log a base x = log y base x
hence y = a
hence x^(log a base x) = a.
proved
taking log base x on both sides we have,
(log a base x) * (log x base x) = log y base x
but log x base x = 1 for x not equal to 1
thus log a base x = log y base x
hence y = a
hence x^(log a base x) = a.
proved