What's wrong with this statement

Innate defenses against bacteria and viruses: Gene expression of mRNA coding for the synthesis of proteins capable of blocking viral replication is a direct consequence of non-specific interferon binding to non-virally infected cells...
the professor said something like it's specific binding, but interferons are nonspecific.. so i'm confused.. any help please?

Specific as in the interferon excretion from the cell only induces a response in neighbouring cells which, in turn produce certain proteins which interact with host translation and increase mRNA degredation. This process kills the host cells which are in an area containing suitable amounts of interferon, and the cells must also contain a common receptor on their membrane in order to bind the interferon.

The intracellular response is non-specific but the locality of the response at the tissue/cell layer is a specific response.