During meiosis, don't all females (human) produce just maternal chromosomes, and males paternal chromosomes

I don't understand, because in my textbook, it says "cells produced in meiosis 1 are much more likely to receive a combination of maternal AND paternal chromosomes than they are to receive a complete set of maternal chromosomes or a complete set of paternal chromosomes." Could someone please explain this. I thought all maternal chromosomes would only be found in egg, not sperm.

Thank you in advance!

When a zygote is formed, half its chromosomes gave come from the egg, hence called 'maternal, and the other half has come from the sperm, hence called 'paternal'. Thus, in each and every one of your cells (except for a few exceptions) you have a maternal and a paternal set of chromosomes (indicating you received it from your mother or father respectively).
During meiosis I, the process of crossing over shuffles the genes between the maternal and paternal copies, producing new combinations of genes. Thus the chromosomes produced after crossing over will not be a complete set of either the maternal or paternal, but will be a combination of the maternal and paternal set.

When, after meiosis II the gamete is formed (egg or sperm) the chromosomes it contains now has combination of that individual's maternal and paternal chromosomes. When the egg/sperm undergoes fertilisation the set of chromosomes contributed will be now known as the paternal or maternal set respectively in the zygote formed.