It says what is the slope of the equation x=y. There are no numbers obviously, so I am guessing there are infinite solutions.
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The slope is "rise" divided by "run"
- that means, for every increase in x,
how much of an increase do you get in y ? -
so, as in your headline, the answer is,
the slope is 1.
Because for every increase of 1 unit in x,
you would also get an increase of 1 unit in y.
Another way to see it is just to write the equation as:
y = 1x
which means exactly the same thing as x=y.
- that means, for every increase in x,
how much of an increase do you get in y ? -
so, as in your headline, the answer is,
the slope is 1.
Because for every increase of 1 unit in x,
you would also get an increase of 1 unit in y.
Another way to see it is just to write the equation as:
y = 1x
which means exactly the same thing as x=y.
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y= x, does NOT have infinite solutions. It has 1 solution, when x= 0. But yes you are right, the slope of y = x is 1. consider f(x) = x and now take its derivative, it would be 1, which is the slope of f(x).
A function for example, which would have infinite solutions, would be say f(x) = sin x. sin x is cyclic so it has infinite solution. we write this as k*pi .. where k is a constant.
A function for example, which would have infinite solutions, would be say f(x) = sin x. sin x is cyclic so it has infinite solution. we write this as k*pi .. where k is a constant.
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y = x
"There are no numbers obviously". Obviously, x has coefficient 1; you don't wrote it, but you understand it's there!
Forthere, ths slope is 1!
"There are no numbers obviously". Obviously, x has coefficient 1; you don't wrote it, but you understand it's there!
Forthere, ths slope is 1!
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slope = 1