If the equation has infinite solutions, is the slope 1
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If the equation has infinite solutions, is the slope 1

[From: ] [author: ] [Date: 12-05-18] [Hit: ]
There are no numbers obviously, so I am guessing there are infinite solutions.- that means, for every increase in x,how much of an increase do you get in y ?so,......
It says what is the slope of the equation x=y. There are no numbers obviously, so I am guessing there are infinite solutions.

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The slope is "rise" divided by "run"
- that means, for every increase in x,
how much of an increase do you get in y ? -
so, as in your headline, the answer is,
the slope is 1.
Because for every increase of 1 unit in x,
you would also get an increase of 1 unit in y.
Another way to see it is just to write the equation as:
y = 1x
which means exactly the same thing as x=y.

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y= x, does NOT have infinite solutions. It has 1 solution, when x= 0. But yes you are right, the slope of y = x is 1. consider f(x) = x and now take its derivative, it would be 1, which is the slope of f(x).

A function for example, which would have infinite solutions, would be say f(x) = sin x. sin x is cyclic so it has infinite solution. we write this as k*pi .. where k is a constant.

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y = x

"There are no numbers obviously". Obviously, x has coefficient 1; you don't wrote it, but you understand it's there!

Forthere, ths slope is 1!

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slope = 1
1
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